M&D (1)

[thomasvieth]

First, I thought it does follow the German rules, but then it doesn't, 
because there are mid-sentence adjectives that are capitalized and they 
are certainly not in German. I think both spelling and capitalization are 
nilly-willy as they were back then. I mean, this wasn't yet the age of 
Common Spelling Rules.
Thomas

On Mon, 5 May 1997, argus. wrote:

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> MESCOLAR sez:
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> >           Does anyone quite understand the method Pynchon uses for
> >           capitalizing words?
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> I haven't figure out the Rhyme or Reason yet for Pynchon's use, but
> I wanted to ask: 
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> My Recollection is that the Capitalization during this Time period 
> had a direct Relation to the Common use of German and its influence 
> on English.  German at points was a more Popular Language in the US,
> in fact.  German, of course, has specific Rules of Capitalization for
> mid-sentence.
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> So I guess Either a 'nother Linguist or a German-speaker might
> be able to Help.  Mmm?
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> take care all
> susan
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