NP:rhetoric and belief

[rhaenda]

Two observations on recent postings: 

1) Much is made by some over U.S. responsibility for the plight of the Afghani people due to previous U.S. support for bin Laden, u.s.w.  Yet, I have have not seen (or perhaps I have failed to notice) any attribution of responsibility for the same privatio boni given to the people of the former Soviet Union.  After all, the U.S.S.R. invaded Afghanistan in 1979 in force and certainly contributed to the misery there.  Are the Russians and other nationalities of the former USSR absolved of blame because it was their former government who invaded?  Or is absolution given to them because of the passage of time?  After all, it was a former government of the U.S. who supported bin Laden and not the current government.  What is the statute of limitations on the causation of misery or rather, what are the conditions of absolution?

2) Why do some p-listers state that they prefer to think that CNN is engaged in deliberate falsification of video images and deliberate propagandistic manipulation of the context of images rather than to accept that some Palestinians are openly hostile to the U.S. and approve of deadly acts in the U.S.?  

Is this Orwellian doublethink or is it merely puzzling evidence? 
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