Pynchon & Jazz
Cyrus
cyrusgeo at netscape.net
Thu Feb 20 10:27:23 CST 2003
prozak at anus.com wrote:
>Interesting interpretation, although it seems to me that Western
>classical music is predominantly melodic, although it insists on
>defined harmonic structures (much like Western poetry of the older
>types).
>
That's the key point, as you write yourself above: "it insists on
defined harmonic structures". Harmony is always present, and when it is
not, it is implied. Even in works composed for single instruments
(Bach's "Suites for Violoncello Solo" are a perfect example, plus being
extremely beautiful) the harmony is strongly implied by the movement of
the melody, which is a definite requirement in order for the melody to
make sense to the ear. In Eastern music there is no such need, because
in most cases "harmony" simply isn't there at all. The requirement in
this case is to stay within the scale of a particular mode. Changing
modes within a piece is achieved easily through characteristic melodic
passages, usually peculiar to a specific mode. This is not to say, of
course, that Western music is not melodic. On the contrary. But harmony
defines all...
Oh, and I' ve found out (second-hand) that being a teacher to your own
children is always a bad idea.
Cyrus
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