Pynchon & Jazz

Cyrus cyrusgeo at netscape.net
Thu Feb 20 10:27:23 CST 2003



prozak at anus.com wrote:

>Interesting interpretation, although it seems to me that Western 
>classical music is predominantly melodic, although it insists on 
>defined harmonic structures (much like Western poetry of the older 
>types).
>

That's the key point, as you write yourself above: "it insists on 
defined harmonic structures". Harmony is always present, and when it is 
not, it is implied. Even in works composed for single instruments 
(Bach's "Suites for Violoncello Solo" are a perfect example, plus being 
extremely beautiful) the harmony is strongly implied by the movement of 
the melody, which is a definite requirement in order for the melody to 
make sense to the ear. In Eastern music there is no such need, because 
in most cases "harmony" simply isn't there at all. The requirement in 
this case is to stay within the scale of a particular mode. Changing 
modes within a piece is achieved easily through characteristic melodic 
passages, usually peculiar to a specific mode. This is not to say, of 
course, that Western music is not melodic. On the contrary. But harmony 
defines all...

Oh, and I' ve found out (second-hand) that being a teacher to your own 
children is always a bad idea.

Cyrus





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