Writing Theory
Thomas Colin
thomas_colin at hotmail.com
Fri Mar 10 19:07:28 CST 2000
Yes, HOOZE to say? Who determines what the standards are? Well, according
to the new critics the text should provide its own standards within itself
and should not require any supplement or information from external sources,
especially if they are not of a literary nature (historical, psychological,
biographical, etc). One of the definitions of art is that it is
self-sufficient and contains its end or cause in itself (material cause,
final cause, primary cause... can't remember the other one listed somewhere
by Aristotle, and I read this in French so the terminology might not be
exactly this). Insisting on the intentional fallacy has at least the merit
to keep the question "what is art, and how do we talk about it" alive and
kicking.
But one soon realizes that Wimsatt's manifesto is quite sterile when put
into practice, as well as rather reactionary and elitist in its politics.
That is why I said that, apart from this "intentional fallacy," taken more
as a counterargument to avoid straying from literary matters than as a
positive hermeneutic intention, I would not use Wimsatt, who very often
beautifully gets on my nerves. cf the other fallacy you mentioned, the
"affective fallacy," without which I honestly don't know how literature
could even exist. It has also been proven a fertile method, and a very
honest one to my mind by the Constanz school and reader response, starting
from the modest (but irreducible) standpoint of a subjective reader to
gradually climb to the most subtle readings...
Best,
Tom.
>I think the notion of deriving a "standard of criticism" is the stumbling
>block here. (What is this "standard"? Who sets it?) And, the concept of
>"objective criticism" is oxymoronic, isn't it? I agree that relying on
>either Intention or Effect as the only, or predominant, lever for textual
>interpretation is potentially misleading, but I'd be wary about throwing
>the
>baby out with the bathwater.
>
>best
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