"I also" Vs "Me too"

[Neel Shah]

English got rid of the accusative dative distinction at some point. Could
be a possible theory?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oblique_case

On 13 Jan 2018 10:32 am, "Neel Shah" <neelshah.sa at gmail.com> wrote:

Things like these are more visible to me since moving to a German speaking
country.
In German, this is easily explained by the clear case separation.

https://www.reddit.com/r/German/comments/2n2tpn/ich_
auch_mir_auch_or_mich_auch/

On 13 Jan 2018 3:47 am, "David Morris" <fqmorris at gmail.com> wrote:

> They seem the same, but grammar couldn't allow that.
>
> "Me too," is so US ubiquitous that gut thinks it right as a declarative.
> But "me" is not a subject, is it?  An object cannot command a verb, right?
>
> My inner 4th grader is emerging, and grammar was a powerful math to learn
> back then.  Graphing sentence structure was fun.  Nerd, I was.
>
> David Morris
>
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