"I also" Vs "Me too"

[Becky Lindroos]

There are a lot of “understood”  words in contemporary English.   With the phrase “Me, too”  the understood words could be “*That’s true for*  me, too.”    And  “I also”  works if you add the last words -  “I also like ice cream.”   

Sometimes what is correct sounds really pathetic  -   “Are you going with him and me?”   (So use “us”  if possible.)  

Often it’s just a matter of adding the additional word(s)  -   “I’m not as tall as him” is incorrect.  But "I’m not as tall as he”  sounds worse.    But when you actually use the last (understood)  verb -  “I”m not as tall as he *is*”   it’s fine.     

It doesn’t always work but it helps.  

Becky
https://beckylindroos.wordpress.com

> On Jan 13, 2018, at 1:37 AM, Neel Shah <neelshah.sa at gmail.com> wrote:
> 
> English got rid of the accusative dative distinction at some point. Could be a possible theory?
> 
> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oblique_case
> 
> On 13 Jan 2018 10:32 am, "Neel Shah" <neelshah.sa at gmail.com> wrote:
> Things like these are more visible to me since moving to a German speaking country. 
> In German, this is easily explained by the clear case separation.
> 
> https://www.reddit.com/r/German/comments/2n2tpn/ich_auch_mir_auch_or_mich_auch/
> 
> On 13 Jan 2018 3:47 am, "David Morris" <fqmorris at gmail.com> wrote:
> They seem the same, but grammar couldn't allow that.
> 
> "Me too," is so US ubiquitous that gut thinks it right as a declarative.  But "me" is not a subject, is it?  An object cannot command a verb, right?
> 
> My inner 4th grader is emerging, and grammar was a powerful math to learn back then.  Graphing sentence structure was fun.  Nerd, I was.
> 
> David Morris
> 

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